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sriram123
#1
Feb26-13, 04:45 AM
P: 27
Hi all,
I know this is a very basic question and has been discussed in various threads.Anyway i would i like to ask this.

If the value of friction only depends on coefficient of friction and normal force, why is rolling friction less than sliding friction? Is it because the value of Rn the reaction force changes?

I know this is very elementary but I thought it would make my understanding better.

Thanks in advance
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