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Tom Mattson
Aug21-03, 09:52 PM
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Originally posted by LURCH
Yeah, I had considered mentioning that, but left it out because I was pretty certain that the main reason for this prohibition against witchcraft was not because of its association with drug use. However, the connection is certainly well worth noting.
The reason I mentioned it is that in every other biblical prohibition against witchcraft, the Greek word "magia" ("magic"--duh ) was used. When NT translators ran across "pharmakeia" they translated it "witchcraft", but why not translate it "drug use"?

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