## Proving the existence of a limit?

How do you prove the existence but not necessarily the value of a limit?
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 Quote by pivoxa15 How do you prove the existence but not necessarily the value of a limit?
Why not give an example of such a problem because I think your question is too general.
 Suppose you are given a limit. Show that a limit exists without needing to say what it is. It is a general question.

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## Proving the existence of a limit?

 Quote by pivoxa15 Suppose you are given a limit. Show that a limit exists without needing to say what it is. It is a general question.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Absolute_convergence
 Okay, good point. I'll be more specific. I was thinking of limits of sequences only. Or are all limits sequences in which case I haven't narrowed down anything?

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 Quote by pivoxa15 Okay, good point. I'll be more specific. I was thinking of limits of sequences only. Or are all limits sequences in which case I haven't narrowed down anything?
Well how about showing the limit of $$a_n-a_{n+1}=0$$ as n->oo

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 Quote by John Creighto Well how about showing the limit of $$a_n-a_{n+1}=0$$ as n->oo
This doesn't imply that (a_n) will converge. [Counterexample: a_n = log(n).]

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 Quote by pivoxa15 Okay, good point. I'll be more specific. I was thinking of limits of sequences only. Or are all limits sequences in which case I haven't narrowed down anything?
If you're going to be taking a limit of something, then it had better be a sequence (or something sequence-like). So, no, you haven't narrowed down anything. Do you mean sequences of numbers?

In any case, there are a few existence results that can come in handy. One example is the monotone convergence theorem, which states that if a sequences of real numbers is monotone and bounded, then it must converge.

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Quote by morphism
 Well how about showing the limit of $$a_n-a_{n+1}=0$$ as n->oo
This doesn't imply that (a_n) will converge. [Counterexample: a_n = log(n).]
What if a_n is bound both above and bellow?

 Quote by John Creighto What if a_n is bound both above and bellow?
In which case it would be in a compact space. All cauchy sequences in a compact space converge.

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 Quote by pivoxa15 In which case it would be in a compact space. All cauchy sequences in a compact space converge.
Just because (a_n - a_{n+1}) -> 0 doesn't mean a_n is Cauchy. Again, a counterexample to this claim is a_n = log(n). We have log(n) - log(n+1) = log(n/(n+1)) -> log(1) = 0, but if this were Cauchy, then it would be convergent (since the reals are complete), and it clearly isn't.

It turns out that being bounded isn't good enough either, although finding a counterexample was trickier. At any rate: try a_n = exp(i(1 + 1/2 + ... + 1/n)). This doesn't converge - it goes around the unit circle in the complex plane. On the other hand,
$$a_n - a_{n+1} = \exp\left(i \left(1 + \frac{1}{2} + ... + \frac{1}{n}\right)\right)\left(1 - \exp\left(\frac{i}{n+1}\right)\right) \to 0.[/itex] Blog Entries: 3  Quote by morphism Just because (a_n - a_{n+1}) -> 0 doesn't mean a_n is Cauchy. Again, a counterexample to this claim is a_n = log(n). We have log(n) - log(n+1) = log(n/(n+1)) -> log(1) = 0, but if this were Cauchy, then it would be convergent (since the reals are complete), and it clearly isn't. It turns out that being bounded isn't good enough either, although finding a counterexample was trickier. At any rate: try a_n = exp(i(1 + 1/2 + ... + 1/n)). This doesn't converge - it goes around the unit circle in the complex plane. On the other hand, [tex]a_n - a_{n+1} = \exp\left(i \left(1 + \frac{1}{2} + ... + \frac{1}{n}\right)\right)\left(1 - \exp\left(\frac{i}{n+1}\right)\right) \to 0.[/itex] Okay, how about [tex]a_n-a_{n-1} \le k \left( \frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n-1} \right)$$ for all n greater then M

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 Quote by morphism It turns out that being bounded isn't good enough either, although finding a counterexample was trickier. At any rate: try a_n = exp(i(1 + 1/2 + ... + 1/n)). This doesn't converge - it goes around the unit circle in the complex plane. On the other hand, $$a_n - a_{n+1} = \exp\left(i \left(1 + \frac{1}{2} + ... + \frac{1}{n}\right)\right)\left(1 - \exp\left(\frac{i}{n+1}\right)\right) \to 0.[/itex] That's a pretty interesting example. Can you find a similar example on the reals? Recognitions: Homework Help Science Advisor  Quote by John Creighto Okay, how about [tex]a_n-a_{n-1} \le k \left( \frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n-1} \right)$$ for all n greater then M
What are k and M?

 That's a pretty interesting example. Can you find a similar example on the reals?
Take the real part of it and see what happens.
 To be more specific, I had a sequence a_m/b_m where a_m and b_m in the limit is 0. However they are not functions so can't use that rule which I can't spell, l'hospil's rule?

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 Quote by morphism What are k and M? Take the real part of it and see what happens.
k an M are arbitrary chosen to make the inequality work for a given sequence.
 Recognitions: Gold Member Science Advisor Staff Emeritus Why didn't you say that when you were first asked to be specific? If all you know is that $a_n$ and $b_n$ go to 0, you can't say anything about whether $a_n/b_n$ converges or diverges. For example, if $a_n= 1/n^2$ and $b_n= 1/n$, it is obvious that both $a_n$ and $b_n$ converge to 0. And $a_n/b_n= (1/n^2)(n/1)= 1/n$ converges to 0. But if $b_n= 1/n^2$ and $a_n= 1/n$, it is still obvious that both $a_n$ and $b_n$ converge to 0 but now $a_n/b_n= (1/n)(n^2/1)= n$ does not converge.

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