Originally Posted by marcusmath

Isn't this correct though?
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I said 'x^2=y^2 does not imply x=y'. What you are saying is that x^2=y^2 implies x=+-y. There is no contradiction here.
in the original post, you had
sqrt(x)=-1
then you square both sides and got
x=1 (another mistake in your post was the x=+-1 part; where did the -1 come from??)
and from that you concluded that, if x=1, then
sqrt(x)=-1
which is false, because x^2=y^2 does not imply x=y.
There was a post here a while ago, I can't find it, but it expressed a common misconception people make when solving equations. When you have something like x+4=8, and you subtract 4 from both sides to get x=4, you did not prove that
'if x=4 then x+4=8' (1)
you actually proved that
'if x+4=8 then x=4' (2)
And (1) is true only if the operation you peformed was injective (i.e. one to one). subtraction is injective, squaring both sides isn't.