|Feb22-10, 11:28 PM||#1|
Probability: Infinite Convergent Series and Random Variables
I have a random variable problem. I need to prove that my equation I came up with is a valid probability mass function.
In the problem, I came up with this for my probability mass function:
Maple says that this does in fact converge to 1, so it's valid; however...I can't use "Maple said so" as an answer.
My attempt was to break it up using partial fraction decomposition:
([tex]6/(k+4)[/tex]) - ([tex]12/(k+3)[/tex]) + ([tex]6/(k+2)[/tex])
I was hoping that this would be telescoping, but it is not. Does anyone have an idea on how I can prove that this converges to 1?
|Feb23-10, 05:54 AM||#2|
[6/(k+4) - 6/(k+3)] - [6/(k+3) - 6/(k+2)]
|Feb23-10, 08:39 AM||#3|
Thanks! Dunno how I didn't see that before..
|Similar Threads for: Probability: Infinite Convergent Series and Random Variables|
|Sum of convergent series HELP!!||Calculus & Beyond Homework||5|
|Divergent Harmonic Series, Convergent P-Series (Cauchy sequences)||Calculus & Beyond Homework||1|