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Additionl field proportional to magnetisation? 
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#1
Feb2312, 10:58 AM

P: 260

Magnetisation of a sample is net dipole moment per unit volume i.e. M = m(net) / V
It turns out that magnetic field due to the material is proportional to magnetisation i.e. B(magnetic field due to material) = μM Any explanation to this? It should be proportional but any proof for this or is it just experimental 


#2
Feb2312, 04:14 PM

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P: 26,148

hi jd12345!
M and H are measured in electric units, as electric current/distance (Am^{1}), (magnetic dipole moment is charge times distance/time, = distance times charge/time = distance times electric current, in A.m) but B is measured in magnetic units, as magnetic flux/area (Wb.m^{2}) there's no fundamental reason for this … they're all the same thing! … it's just more convenient in practice! so to convert between these different species of units, we must have a universal conversion factor, and that's µ_{o} (in Wb.A^{1}m^{1} or T.m.A^{1}) µ (as opposed to µ_{o}) is just a trick to make it look as if B is proportional to H on its own 


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