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I've sometimes seen this argument being used:
The amount of vectors with a given velocity is propotional to the area of the sphere given by:
4πv2, because there are more vectors corresponding to bigger speeds.
But mathematically this is nonsense to me, pretty much like comparing infinities. There are an infinite amount of vectors corresponding to any speed apart from zero speaking strictly mathematical.
So why is that on a deeper level makes this argument of "nonsense" hold?
The amount of vectors with a given velocity is propotional to the area of the sphere given by:
4πv2, because there are more vectors corresponding to bigger speeds.
But mathematically this is nonsense to me, pretty much like comparing infinities. There are an infinite amount of vectors corresponding to any speed apart from zero speaking strictly mathematical.
So why is that on a deeper level makes this argument of "nonsense" hold?