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Question about automorphisms |
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| Nov12-12, 03:42 PM | #1 |
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Question about automorphisms
So I've been reading a bit about automorphisms today and I was wondering about something. I'm particularly talking about groups in this case, say a group G.
So an automorphism is a bijective homomorphism ( endomorphism if you prefer ) of a group G. We use Aut(G) to denote the set of all automorphisms of G. There is also an inner automorphism induced by a in G. The map f := G → G such that f(x) = axa-1 for all x in G is called the inner automorphism of G induced by a. We use Inn(G) to denote the set of all inner automorphisms of G. My question now : If |G| is infinite, are the orders of Aut(G) and Inn(G) also infinite? It makes sense to me that they would be. |
| Nov12-12, 03:55 PM | #2 |
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| Nov12-12, 04:06 PM | #3 |
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| Nov12-12, 04:30 PM | #4 |
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Question about automorphismsSo f(x) = 2x wouldn't be an automorphism for example. While it is a homomorphism, it is not injective, only surjective I believe. Short proof to make sure : So f : Z → Z is already well defined for us. So we assume f(x) = f(y) → 2x = 2y → 2(x-y) = 0. Since 2|0, clearly x = y and f is injective. Now notice that the n elements of Z get mapped to fewer elements, so f is not surjective. Easy to show it's a homomorphism. So f(x) = x and g(x) = -x are the only things that could be in Aut(Z) since they are the only maps which turn out to be automorphisms. As for Inn(Z) = 0. That confused me a bit. EDIT : Wouldn't it be Inn(Z) = { 0 } ? |
| Nov12-12, 04:57 PM | #5 |
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| Nov12-12, 05:02 PM | #6 |
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| Nov12-12, 08:12 PM | #7 |
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Thanks for clarifying jgens I think I understand this now. |
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