
#1
Feb113, 10:34 PM

P: 376

Is it a solid proof to show that the closure of a union equals the union of the closures of the sets via induction?




#2
Feb113, 11:24 PM

P: 771





#3
Feb113, 11:30 PM

P: 2,471

A proof is a proof no matter if you use induction or some direct method as long as the logic of each step is impeccable.
There are some math purists who disdain induction proofs for some theorems and prefer other styles of proof but thats beyond my math understanding to explain here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brouwer...rt_controversy 



#4
Feb213, 11:22 PM

P: 376

Proof by InductionI should work it out some time and post it here. It seems feasible. 



#5
Feb213, 11:22 PM

P: 376




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