Q on solution of Spherical Harmonic

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the solution of spherical harmonics using associated Legendre polynomials, specifically addressing the constants involved in the equations and their implications in quantum mechanics.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore why the constant in a specific formula can be represented as -m² and question the reasoning behind the form of l(l+1) as a constant. There are discussions about the nature of constants in differential equations and their role in simplifying algebraic expressions.

Discussion Status

The conversation includes various perspectives on the mathematical reasoning behind the constants, with some participants suggesting that the choice of -m² is a simplification for later calculations. Others emphasize the importance of understanding the underlying physics and mathematics rather than relying solely on online resources.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of differing interpretations regarding the constants used in the equations, and some participants express caution about the terminology used in the discussion. The original poster also references a specific textbook for further study.

maverick6664
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I read the solution for spherical harmonic using associated Legendre polynomials, and am wondering...

For example, a solution is written in here, but I wonder why the constant in forumula (3) can be determined as -m^2, as a negative value of square of an integer.

Similar thing applies to the r variable (in the above page it doesn't appear, though),

{r(\frac {\partial^2} {{\partial r}^2})(rR(r))} / {R(r)} = l(l+1)

Here, I can understand this should be a constant, but cannot understand why it's a form of l(l+1) where l is an integer...

Will anyone tell me??

Thanks in advance!
 
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We know "the constant" in eqn (3) is constant, so we have the freedom to call it *whatever* we want, as long as it is indeed constant. Calling it -m^2 is just a trick because it simplifies the algebra later on (when you get the equation (4)).

Another way to explain it is that the differential equation:

(d^2 X)/(dY^2) = (-c^2)*X

Is a pretty standard one (ie, it crops up a lot in various bits of physics and maths), and we know the solutions to it (given by eqn (4) on your link). So when you come across the equation:

(d^2 X)/(dY^2) = S*X , S=const

You recall the other differential equation and see it's better to write S as -m^2 because then we immediatly have the solutions because it's just a standard differential equation.

As for the other question, I suspect it's for the same reason, but I'm not sure.
 
maverick6664 said:
I read the solution for spherical harmonic using associated Legendre polynomials, and am wondering...

For example, a solution is written in here, but I wonder why the constant in forumula (3) can be determined as -m^2, as a negative value of square of an integer.

Good question. Well, actually, you can take any constant that you want. The fact that -m² is taken, is a direct consequence of , err, some mathematical "playing"...Here it goes :

L_z \Phi_m( \phi) = m \hbar \Phi_m( \phi)
-i \frac {\partial}{\partial \phi} \Phi_m( \phi) = m \Phi_m( \phi)
-i \frac {\partial ^2}{{\partial \phi}^2} \Phi_m( \phi) = m \frac {\partial}{\partial \phi}\Phi_m( \phi) = \frac {m^2}{-i} \Phi_m ( \phi)

Thus

\frac{1}{\Phi_m (\phi)} \frac{\partial ^2}{{\partial \phi}^2} \Phi_m ( \phi) = \frac{m^2}{i^2} = -m^2

QED

marlon

edit : if i can make a suggestion : you should not be studying this from a website, nomatter how reliable it is. What books are you using for your QM course ?
 
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zeta101 said:
As for the other question, I suspect it's for the same reason, but I'm not sure.

Correct. There are several ways to explain this :

1) structure of the Legendre Polynomials

2) symmetry of the physics at hand (ie the orbitals) : grouptheory

3) combining following two aspects:
a) the eigen equations for L^2 and L_z
b) <L^2> \geq <L_z^2> because L_x and L_y are Hermitian

regards
marlon

edit : again, do not use an internet site as your primary source of study
 
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Thanks all! I think I've understood: My understanding is, all the solutions of Laplace equation in spherial coordiates are represented with these m and l using associated polynomials, so these "discrete constants" are proved to be enough to solve this equation.

As you all say, if these discrete values are just for convenience (just to simplify), it's enough to me.

I'm now mainly reading Greiner's "Quantum Mechanics: an introduction" because it has a lot of calculations and exercises.
 
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maverick6664 said:
Thanks all! I think I've understood: My understanding is, all the solutions of Laplace equation in spherial coordiates are represented with these m and l using associated polynomials, so these "discrete constants" are proved to be enough to solve this equation.
You mean Schrödinger equation, right ?
As you all say, if these discrete values are just for convenience (just to simplify), it's enough to me.
Well, be careful with this vocabularium. It is not just about "convenience". These values are used for a specific reason : because they are building blocks of the correct description of nature. One can, and one DOES, prove them using one of the three systems that i outlined in my previous post. Which of the two is your book using ? Probably the second one if it is introductory.

regards
marlon
 
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