| Thread Closed |
Every sequence of bounded functions that is uniformly converent is uniformly bounded |
Share Thread |
| Dec9-07, 12:18 PM | #1 |
|
|
Every sequence of bounded functions that is uniformly converent is uniformly bounded
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
Prove that every sequence of bounded functions that is uniformly convergent is uniformly bounded. 2. Relevant equations Let {fn} be the sequence of functions and it converges to f. Then for all n >= N, and all x, we have |fn -f| <= e (for all e >0). ---------- (1) 3. The attempt at a solution This problem is from Rudin, 7.1. I am not clear about the part of "bounded function sequence". But I suppose this is what I is meant. |fn(x)| < Mn. , n = 1,2,3.... Also, I am unsure if f(x) (to which the sequene converges is bounded or not). That is is |f(x)| < some real number for all x. I suppose yes. But not sure. Here is my solution anyways. => |f1(x)| < M1, |f2(x)| < M2, ... |fN-1(x)| < M(N-1). Also, let e =1 in (1), then n >= N implies that |fn-f| <=1 Hene, for n >=N and for all x , we have |fn| <= |fn-f| + |f| = |f| +1 Now, let M = max {M1,M2,....M(N-1), 1 +|f|}. for all x, where M is a real number. If I can somehow state that |f|+1 is bounded, then for all n and for all x |fn(x)| < M. Hence, the sequence is uniformly bounded. I guess I can safely assume that |f(x)| < infinity for all x. Because |fn(x)| < Mn. for all n. Hence, lim (n->infinity) |fn(x)| < infinity for else for some n >N, we shall have an unbounded function in the sequence. But for lim(n->infinity) |fn(x)| = |f(x)|. Hence, |f(x)| < infinity and so is bounded. Can someone verify? Thanks. |
| Dec9-07, 12:22 PM | #2 |
|
|
The most important clue here is uniform convergence.
Without that property, the theorem isn't true. I'll look over your proof later on, if necessary. |
| Dec9-07, 12:54 PM | #3 |
|
|
Since you were wondering about "sequence of bounded functions" (yes, for every n, there exist number Mn such that |fn(x)|< Mn), as you clear on "uniformly bounded"? That simply means that "there exist an number M such that, for all n, |fn(x)|< M". That is, that you can choose a single number M rather than a different Mn for each n.
Notice that this does NOT ask you to prove anything about the limit of the sequence- and, in particular, |f(x)|< infinity does NOT mean the function is bounded! The simple function f(x)= x satisfies the condition that |f(x)|< infinity, but is not a bounded function. |
| Dec9-07, 07:29 PM | #4 |
|
|
Every sequence of bounded functions that is uniformly converent is uniformly boundedThanks, again. |
| Dec9-07, 07:30 PM | #5 |
|
|
That is an important point that you brought up. Thanks, for that. I solved the problem by showing that |f(x)| < M(N+1)+1 for e=1 and |fn| < Mn. And, since for n >=N, the function is uniformly bounded, we have |f(x)| < 1 + M(N+1). Henc,e |f(x)| is bounded. Thanks, again. |
| Thread Closed |
Similar discussions for: Every sequence of bounded functions that is uniformly converent is uniformly bounded
|
||||
| Thread | Forum | Replies | ||
| uniformly convergent sequence | Calculus | 1 | ||
| prove sequence is bounded | Calculus & Beyond Homework | 3 | ||
| Uniformly continuous and bounded | Calculus | 1 | ||
| bounded sequence as convergent | General Math | 7 | ||
| Do quantum fluctuations bounded above correspond to those bounded below? | General Astronomy | 0 | ||