volume of a rotated graph?


by tbone413
Tags: graph, rotated, volume
tbone413
tbone413 is offline
#1
Mar19-08, 12:43 PM
P: 7
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
Find the volume of the solid found by rotating the area bound between
the curves x = 1, y = x^2, y = 0, around x-axis.


2. Relevant equations
I know you have to solve this using the shell method, but I just get extremely confused while trying to do it. Maybe someone could explain it to me?


3. The attempt at a solution
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silicon_hobo
silicon_hobo is offline
#2
Mar19-08, 01:21 PM
P: 59
This is the formula for the cylindrical shell method:
[tex]\int_a^b2\pi xf(x)dx[/tex]
you can also use [tex]\int_a^bA(x)dx[/tex]
The second one would be easier.
silicon_hobo
silicon_hobo is offline
#3
Mar19-08, 03:18 PM
P: 59
Sorry! I was mistaken when I said the area was unbounded. The first thing you need to do is find where these curves intersect and determine the leftmost and rightmost boundaries of X.

Soup
Soup is offline
#4
Mar19-08, 07:12 PM
P: 2

volume of a rotated graph?


Normally to find points of intersection you would set the two curves you wish to find the x values that satisythis equation. However they are much more easily found in this particular problem by drawing a quick sketch. It comes out at x=0 to x=1

Also, this does not require shell method at all. Shell method is for when you cannot create an infinite number of lines between between your boundaries that is perpundicular to your axis of revolution such that one of those lines would hit the same curve twice. In this case all you need to is:
[tex]\pi\int_0^1\ (x^2)dx[/tex]
Snazzy
Snazzy is offline
#5
Mar19-08, 07:21 PM
P: 459
Quote Quote by Soup View Post
[tex]\pi\int_0^1\ (x^2)dx[/tex]
Should be (f(x))^2.
paralian
paralian is offline
#6
Mar19-08, 09:35 PM
P: 14
Would that end up being...

[tex]\int^{1}_{0}(\pi r^2)dx[/tex]

where r = "Outer radius" (1) minus "inner radius" ([tex]x^2[/tex])

?

(I hope so, I have a test tomorrow)
Snazzy
Snazzy is offline
#7
Mar19-08, 09:42 PM
P: 459
No, because x = 1 is the vertical boundary in your integration sign.
paralian
paralian is offline
#8
Mar21-08, 10:36 AM
P: 14
Quote Quote by Snazzy View Post
No, because x = 1 is the vertical boundary in your integration sign.
Ok...I think I get it.

[tex]\int^{1}_{0}\pi (x^2)^2 dx[/tex]

= [tex]\pi*\int^{1}_{0}x^4 dx[/tex]

= [tex]\pi*(1^5/5-0)[/tex]

= [tex]\pi/5[/tex]

Is that right?
Snazzy
Snazzy is offline
#9
Mar21-08, 02:29 PM
P: 459
Looks right.

I should've said x = 1 is the vertical line that limits how far horizontally you should integrate.


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