Can the Mean Value Theorem Prove This Complex Function Relationship?

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The discussion revolves around using the Mean Value Theorem (MVT) to prove a specific relationship involving a continuous and differentiable function f over an interval [a, b]. Participants explore constructing an auxiliary function, φ, to apply the MVT effectively, noting the need to adjust arguments to account for the powers of a and b. There is a focus on ensuring that the conditions for applying the theorem are met, particularly regarding the relationship between a, b, and the exponent α. Clarifications are sought on the role of specific equations and how they relate to the proof. Ultimately, the conversation emphasizes the necessity of understanding the MVT's application in this context.
transgalactic
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f(x) continues in [a,b] interval,and differentiable (a,b) b>a>0
alpha differs 0
proove that there is b>c>a

in that formula:
http://img392.imageshack.us/my.php?image=81208753je3.gif

my trial:
i mark alpha as "&"
mean theorim says f'(c)=[(f(b)-f(a)]/(b-a)

[f(b)*(a^&) - f(a)*b^&] / [a^& - b^&]= f(c) -c * [(f(b)-f(a)]/[(b-a) * &]using mean theorem i replaced f'(c)
what should i do next??
 
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You want to use the mean value theorem to prove that, for appropriate conditions on f, a, b, and \alpha that you don't give,
\frac{\left|\begin{array}{cc}f(a) & a^\alpha \\ f(b) & b^\alpha\end{array}\right|}{a^\alpha- b^\alpha}= f(c)- \frac{cf'(c)}{\alpha}

That is the same as
\frac{a^\alpha f(b)- b^\alpha f(a)}{a^\alpha- b^\alpha}= f(c)- \frac{cf(c)}{\alpha}[/itex]<br /> <br /> Obviously we have to construct some function \phi to which to apply the mean value theorem. My first thought was something like x^\alpha f(x) but I notice that &quot;a&quot; and &quot;b&quot; are swapped in the numerator. The line y= b-(x-a)= a+b- x passes thorugh (a,b) and (b,a) so something like x^\alpha f(b+a-x) should work.<br /> <br /> But then we would be applying the mean vaue theorem at a and b and the denominator a- b not a^\alpha- b^\alpha. That means we must be applying the mean value theorem at a^\alpha and b^\alpha so need to &quot;fix&quot; the argument of f to give b when b= a^\alpha and vice- versa. <br /> <br /> That finally gives us \phi(x)= xf((a^\alpha+ b^\alpha- x)&lt;br /&gt; ^{1/\alpha}). The mean value theorem, applied to \phi on the interval from a^\alpha, b^\alpha gives<br /> \frac{\phi(a^\alpha)- \phi(b^\alpha)}{a^\alpha- b^\alpha}= \phi&amp;#039;(c&amp;#039;)[/itex]&lt;br /&gt; for some c&amp;#039; between a^\alpha and b^\alpha. c&amp;#039; here is not the &amp;quot;c&amp;quot; in you original formula.
 
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i thought we apply mean theorim to f(x)

its very similar and we have f'(c) which is the same as the original fornula
??
 
transgalactic said:
i thought we apply mean theorim to f(x)

its very similar and we have f'(c) which is the same as the original fornula
??

If you had known how to apply the MVT to that question you would have done so, wouldn't you? SInce you opened this thread and asked how to prove that fancy equation using the MVT I assume you didn't know how to beneficially apply the theorem. (To whatever function, be it f itself or be it that some auxiliary function needs to be constructed.)

So, I suggest you try and understand what HallsofIvy wrote; only expressing your awe in view of some more elaborate reasoning than your own is little constructive.
 
HallsofIvy said:
You want to use the mean value theorem to prove that, for appropriate conditions on f, a, b, and \alpha that you don't give,
\frac{\left|\begin{array}{cc}f(a) &amp; a^\alpha \\ f(b) &amp; b^\alpha\end{array}\right|}{a^\alpha- b^\alpha}= f(c)- \frac{cf&#039;(c)}{\alpha}

That is the same as
\frac{a^\alpha f(b)- b^\alpha f(a)}{a^\alpha- b^\alpha}= f(c)- \frac{cf(c)}{\alpha}[/itex]<br /> <br /> Obviously we have to construct some function \phi to which to apply the mean value theorem. My first thought was something like x^\alpha f(x) but I notice that &quot;a&quot; and &quot;b&quot; are swapped in the numerator. The line y= b-(x-a)= a+b- x passes thorugh (a,b) and (b,a) so something like x^\alpha f(b+a-x) should work.<br /> <br /> But then we would be applying the mean vaue theorem at a and b and the denominator a- b not a^\alpha- b^\alpha. That means we must be applying the mean value theorem at a^\alpha and b^\alpha so need to &quot;fix&quot; the argument of f to give b when b= a^\alpha and vice- versa. <br /> <br /> That finally gives us \phi(x)= xf((a^\alpha+ b^\alpha- x)&lt;br /&gt; ^{1/\alpha}). The mean value theorem, applied to \phi on the interval from a^\alpha, b^\alpha gives<br /> \frac{\phi(a^\alpha)- \phi(b^\alpha)}{a^\alpha- b^\alpha}= \phi&amp;#039;(c&amp;#039;)[/itex]&lt;br /&gt; for some c&amp;#039; between a^\alpha and b^\alpha. c&amp;#039; here is not the &amp;quot;c&amp;quot; in you original formula.
&lt;br /&gt; &lt;br /&gt; &lt;br /&gt; &amp;quot;y= b-(x-a)= a+b- x &amp;quot; &lt;br /&gt; whats the role of this??
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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