Can the Mean Value Theorem Prove This Complex Function Relationship?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of the Mean Value Theorem (MVT) to a complex function relationship involving a continuous and differentiable function f over an interval [a, b] with a parameter α. The original poster seeks to prove a specific relationship involving f(a), f(b), and powers of a and b.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the use of the MVT to establish a relationship between the function values and their powers. There are attempts to construct auxiliary functions to apply the theorem effectively. Questions arise regarding the correct setup and the implications of swapping variables in the context of the theorem.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of different approaches to applying the MVT, with some participants suggesting specific forms for auxiliary functions. The discussion reflects a lack of consensus on the best method to proceed, with participants questioning assumptions and the roles of various components in the proposed relationships.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note the need for appropriate conditions on the variables involved, and there is a recognition that the original poster has not provided all necessary information for a complete analysis. The discussion also highlights the complexity of the relationships being examined and the potential need for clarification on the definitions and setups used.

transgalactic
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f(x) continues in [a,b] interval,and differentiable (a,b) b>a>0
alpha differs 0
proove that there is b>c>a

in that formula:
http://img392.imageshack.us/my.php?image=81208753je3.gif

my trial:
i mark alpha as "&"
mean theorim says f'(c)=[(f(b)-f(a)]/(b-a)

[f(b)*(a^&) - f(a)*b^&] / [a^& - b^&]= f(c) -c * [(f(b)-f(a)]/[(b-a) * &]using mean theorem i replaced f'(c)
what should i do next??
 
Last edited:
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You want to use the mean value theorem to prove that, for appropriate conditions on f, a, b, and \alpha that you don't give,
\frac{\left|\begin{array}{cc}f(a) & a^\alpha \\ f(b) & b^\alpha\end{array}\right|}{a^\alpha- b^\alpha}= f(c)- \frac{cf'(c)}{\alpha}

That is the same as
\frac{a^\alpha f(b)- b^\alpha f(a)}{a^\alpha- b^\alpha}= f(c)- \frac{cf(c)}{\alpha}[/itex]<br /> <br /> Obviously we have to construct some function \phi to which to apply the mean value theorem. My first thought was something like x^\alpha f(x) but I notice that &quot;a&quot; and &quot;b&quot; are swapped in the numerator. The line y= b-(x-a)= a+b- x passes thorugh (a,b) and (b,a) so something like x^\alpha f(b+a-x) should work.<br /> <br /> But then we would be applying the mean vaue theorem at a and b and the denominator a- b not a^\alpha- b^\alpha. That means we must be applying the mean value theorem at a^\alpha and b^\alpha so need to &quot;fix&quot; the argument of f to give b when b= a^\alpha and vice- versa. <br /> <br /> That finally gives us \phi(x)= xf((a^\alpha+ b^\alpha- x)&lt;br /&gt; ^{1/\alpha}). The mean value theorem, applied to \phi on the interval from a^\alpha, b^\alpha gives<br /> \frac{\phi(a^\alpha)- \phi(b^\alpha)}{a^\alpha- b^\alpha}= \phi&amp;#039;(c&amp;#039;)[/itex]&lt;br /&gt; for some c&amp;#039; between a^\alpha and b^\alpha. c&amp;#039; here is not the &amp;quot;c&amp;quot; in you original formula.
 
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i thought we apply mean theorim to f(x)

its very similar and we have f'(c) which is the same as the original fornula
??
 
transgalactic said:
i thought we apply mean theorim to f(x)

its very similar and we have f'(c) which is the same as the original fornula
??

If you had known how to apply the MVT to that question you would have done so, wouldn't you? SInce you opened this thread and asked how to prove that fancy equation using the MVT I assume you didn't know how to beneficially apply the theorem. (To whatever function, be it f itself or be it that some auxiliary function needs to be constructed.)

So, I suggest you try and understand what HallsofIvy wrote; only expressing your awe in view of some more elaborate reasoning than your own is little constructive.
 
HallsofIvy said:
You want to use the mean value theorem to prove that, for appropriate conditions on f, a, b, and \alpha that you don't give,
\frac{\left|\begin{array}{cc}f(a) &amp; a^\alpha \\ f(b) &amp; b^\alpha\end{array}\right|}{a^\alpha- b^\alpha}= f(c)- \frac{cf&#039;(c)}{\alpha}

That is the same as
\frac{a^\alpha f(b)- b^\alpha f(a)}{a^\alpha- b^\alpha}= f(c)- \frac{cf(c)}{\alpha}[/itex]<br /> <br /> Obviously we have to construct some function \phi to which to apply the mean value theorem. My first thought was something like x^\alpha f(x) but I notice that &quot;a&quot; and &quot;b&quot; are swapped in the numerator. The line y= b-(x-a)= a+b- x passes thorugh (a,b) and (b,a) so something like x^\alpha f(b+a-x) should work.<br /> <br /> But then we would be applying the mean vaue theorem at a and b and the denominator a- b not a^\alpha- b^\alpha. That means we must be applying the mean value theorem at a^\alpha and b^\alpha so need to &quot;fix&quot; the argument of f to give b when b= a^\alpha and vice- versa. <br /> <br /> That finally gives us \phi(x)= xf((a^\alpha+ b^\alpha- x)&lt;br /&gt; ^{1/\alpha}). The mean value theorem, applied to \phi on the interval from a^\alpha, b^\alpha gives<br /> \frac{\phi(a^\alpha)- \phi(b^\alpha)}{a^\alpha- b^\alpha}= \phi&amp;#039;(c&amp;#039;)[/itex]&lt;br /&gt; for some c&amp;#039; between a^\alpha and b^\alpha. c&amp;#039; here is not the &amp;quot;c&amp;quot; in you original formula.
&lt;br /&gt; &lt;br /&gt; &lt;br /&gt; &amp;quot;y= b-(x-a)= a+b- x &amp;quot; &lt;br /&gt; whats the role of this??
 

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