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bit foggy on this trig question

 
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Dec2-08, 06:20 AM   #1
 

bit foggy on this trig question


1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
arccos(cos2[tex]\Pi[/tex])




3. The attempt at a solution
cos of 2[tex]\Pi[/tex] =1
how do I get the arccos of 1? Without a calculator.
Thanks
 
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Dec2-08, 08:21 AM   #2
 
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You have to use either some log tables or your memory. More specifically if you know how to sketch the graph of a cos function then you would know immediately that [tex]\cos (2\pi n) = 1 [/tex] where n is any integer (including 0).
 
Dec2-08, 10:03 AM   #3
 
Yes, I know how to get cos of 2[tex]\Pi[/tex]. It equals 1
I don't know how to get arccos of 1.
Could you help me with that?

I know that, for instance arccos [tex]\stackrel{\Pi}{4}[/tex] = [tex]\stackrel{1}{\sqrt{2}}[/tex]

But how do I figure out arccos 1.

I know it = 0 but I can't see how to derive this
 
Dec2-08, 11:31 AM   #4
 
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bit foggy on this trig question


arccos is inverse function of cos. So If you know that cos(2п)=1 you will know that arccos(1)=2п. Do you understand now?

Regards.

P.S arccos(1 / √2) = п/4
 
Dec4-08, 06:45 PM   #5
 
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For any number, x, between 0 and [itex]\pi[/itex], arccos(cos(x))= x. That follows from the very definition of "arccos".
 
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