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image Silly question, could use some assistance Share It Thread Tools Search this Thread image
Old Feb27-09, 02:51 PM                  #1
csprof2000

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Silly question, could use some assistance

If you add up inverses of odd numbers, can you get an even integer?
Of course, I mean you only use each odd integer once... so 1/3 * 6 doesn't work.

I remember seeming to think that if this could be proved impossible, one could provide an elementary proof of Fermat's last theorem. Undoubtedly false then as it is now, but...

Thoughts? Is this a rabbit hole? Or can you prove / disprove the adding up inverses of odd integers thing?
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Old Feb27-09, 03:29 PM                  #2
CRGreathouse

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Re: Silly question, could use some assistance

Originally Posted by csprof2000 View Post
If you add up inverses of odd numbers, can you get an even integer?
It's an open problem. The special case n = 2 corresponds the the existence of odd perfect numbers.
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Old Feb27-09, 03:59 PM                  #3
yyat

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Re: Silly question, could use some assistance

Originally Posted by CRGreathouse View Post
The special case n = 2 corresponds the the existence of odd perfect numbers.
Could you elaborate on that? I don't see how

LaTeX Code: \\frac{1}{2n+1}+\\frac{1}{2m+1}=2k

could have any nontrivial solution.
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Old Feb27-09, 05:22 PM                  #4
CRGreathouse

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Re: Silly question, could use some assistance

Sorry for not being clear. Exhibiting an odd perfect number would give a set of odd integers whose inverses would sum to 2. I didn't mean for there to be only two terms. In fact, the number of terms for this special case would be at least 3^8 (75 - 16 + 1) = 393,660.
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Old Feb27-09, 09:24 PM       Last edited by robert Ihnot; Feb27-09 at 09:33 PM..            #5
robert Ihnot

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Re: Silly question, could use some assistance

It is known--and found in elementary books--that the sum of successive integers:

LaTeX Code:  \\sum_{n=1}^{n=k}\\frac{1}{n} is never an integer for k greater than 1.
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Old Feb27-09, 09:52 PM                  #6
CRGreathouse

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Re: Silly question, could use some assistance

Originally Posted by robert Ihnot View Post
It is known--and found in elementary books--that the sum of successive integers:

LaTeX Code:  \\sum_{n=1}^{n=k}\\frac{1}{n} is never an integer for k greater than 1.
I believe that's even known starting from an arbitrary positive integer, not just 1.

My post was addressing the possibility of nonconsecutive odds.
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Old Feb27-09, 11:47 PM                  #7
csprof2000

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Re: Silly question, could use some assistance

Oh yes, I don't require that they be consecutive. Sorry for the confusion.

I'm frustrated that I can't remember how this was connected to FLT. I sincerly doubt the relationship was even correct, much less that it would have been an iff chain the likes of which could be used to prove anything.

Good times...
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