Do 1/inf and 1000/inf have same limit of 0?

**hassman** · Jun16-09, 12:27 PM

The title says it all:

Do

$LaTeX Code: \\frac{1}{N} =$ and $LaTeX Code: \\frac{1000}{N}$ have limit of zero as N tends to infinity?

**CRGreathouse** · Jun16-09, 12:28 PM

Yes.

**hassman** · Jun16-09, 12:41 PM

ok :D ty

**HallsofIvy** · Jun16-09, 02:06 PM

Originally Posted by hassman

The title says it all:

Do

$LaTeX Code: \\frac{1}{N} =$ and $LaTeX Code: \\frac{1000}{N}$ have limit of zero as N tends to infinity?

No, the title does not say it all! the limit as N goes to infinity, of 1/N, is NOT the same as "1/infinity"! The latter simply makes no sense. You cannot do arithmetic with "infinity" in the real number system.

The answer to your question is "yes", however, those limits are both 0.