Thread Closed

Euler's Totient Function Proving

 
Share Thread Thread Tools
Feb1-10, 01:02 PM   #1
 

Euler's Totient Function Proving


I need some help/hints on how to prove this statement. I don't know where to start!


Prove that if m and n are positive integers such that m|n, then φ(mn) = mφ(n).

Thanks
PhysOrg.com
PhysOrg
mathematics news on PhysOrg.com

>> Mathematicians analyze social divisions using cell phone data
>> Can math models of gaming strategies be used to detect terrorism networks?
>> Mathematician proves there are infinitely many pairs of prime numbers less than 70 million units apart
Feb1-10, 05:39 PM   #2
 
It's a direct consequence of Euler's formula:
[tex]
\phi\left(n\right)=n(1-\frac{1}{p_1})(1-\frac{1}{p_2}) \cdots (1-\frac{1}{p_k})
[/tex]
Because the hypothesis implies that the prime factorization of m has the same factors as n.

Or you can count the numbers that are coprime with nm in [tex]\left\{1,\ldots,mn\right\}[/tex] and prove that there are as many as the ones that are coprime with n in [tex]\left\{1,\ldots,n\right\}[/tex].
Thread Closed
Thread Tools


Similar Threads for: Euler's Totient Function Proving
Thread Forum Replies
Totient Function and phi(n)==phi(2n) for odd n Linear & Abstract Algebra 13
About Euler's totient function Linear & Abstract Algebra 2
Euler's function Calculus & Beyond Homework 1
Euler's Method of proving primes r infinite Linear & Abstract Algebra 4
Euler's number e, proving convergence and bounds Calculus & Beyond Homework 5