Magnetic Force on a Particle at Zero Velocity

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the magnetic force acting on an electron as it transitions from a state of motion to a state of rest within a magnetic field. The original poster describes the scenario where the electron's velocity is initially given, and then it is brought to zero by an electric field. The focus is on determining the magnetic force at the moment the velocity reaches zero.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the application of the Lorentz force equation and question the implications of the electron's velocity being zero on the magnetic force. There are attempts to calculate acceleration and force using classical mechanics, but confusion arises regarding the role of the magnetic field when velocity is zero.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring different interpretations of the problem, particularly regarding the conditions under which the magnetic force is applicable. Some have suggested that the question may be misleading or a trick question, leading to a lack of consensus on how to proceed.

Contextual Notes

There is uncertainty about whether the magnetic field is present in the region where the electric field is acting to bring the electron's velocity to zero. This affects the interpretation of the magnetic force at that moment.

RunsWithKnives
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ok I'm stuck here...

At a particular point in time, an electron is moving with a velocity of
v=(2.0*10^6 m/s)i + (3.0*10^6 m/s)j

in a constant magnetic field with strength
e=(0.030T)i - (0.15T)j

What is the magnitude of the magnetic force on the electron at that moment? this i found by taking the cross product and multiplying by charge of an electron 6.246e-14N

The electron moves into an area where an electric field is used to bring its velocity to zero in 4.5 X 10-2 seconds. At the moment when the velocity of the particle is zero, what is the magnitude of the magnetic force on the particle?

this is where I'm stuck... i thought that vf = vi + at would give me the acceleration which I could then multiply by the mass of an electron (F=ma)... which would give me F... I know I'm probably missing something elementary here

so I got the magnitude of acceleration by taking the squares of both components of velocity and than the square root... as in sqrt(i^2 + j^2) = v
which gave me 1.3e13 m/s

so then I got 0 m/s = 1.3e13 m/s + a (4.5e-2 s)

a=-2.888e14 m/s^2

F= (9.110e-31 kg)*(2.888e14 m/s^2)

F=2.632e-16 N

so what am i missing?? thanks
 
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RunsWithKnives said:
ok I'm stuck here...

so I got the magnitude of acceleration by taking the squares of both components of velocity and than the square root... as in sqrt(i^2 + j^2) = v
which gave me 1.3e13 m/s

Haven't read it all but I think you forgot to take the square root here...so really,
|v| = 3.6 e6 m/s
 
Gokul43201 said:
Haven't read it all but I think you forgot to take the square root here...so really,
|v| = 3.6 e6 m/s

stupid mistake ... changes my answer to 7.299e-23 N... which still isn't right... any other ideas ?? :confused:

edit: I'm guessing that I'm missing something obvious... I'm supposed to do this using vectors since F = q VxB ... right?? this was how I did the first part... I'll try again in the morning.. too tired to think :zzz:
 
Last edited:
RunsWithKnives said:
ok I'm stuck here...

At the moment when the velocity of the particle is zero, what is the magnitude of the magnetic force on the particle?

Either you've not copied the question down correctly, OR there are more sub-questions following this OR it's a trick question. :wink:

Look at it again : "What is the magnetic force when the velocity is zero ?" :smile:
 
Hi

Does the region where the electric field declerates the particle, also include the magnetic field? Otherwise, the magnetic force + direction at the point of entry into this new region can be computed using the Lorentz force definition. The electric field must have a magnitude and direction so as to bring down the velocity to zero.

Now at the point the velocity becomes zero, the acceleration is nonzero. But now your answer depends on whether B is operating in that region or not. If it is not operating, then qv(cross)B is the magnetic force and it is zero irrespective of whether v is zero or not. Note that the total force is always qv(cross)B + qE where E is the electric field (the trivial case is that one of the fields is zero, when the Lorentz force reduces to either the magnetic force expression or the electric force one).

Cheers
Vivek
 
Gokul43201 said:
Either you've not copied the question down correctly, OR there are more sub-questions following this OR it's a trick question. :wink:

Look at it again : "What is the magnetic force when the velocity is zero ?" :smile:

it was a trick question... I am soo angry right now... there is no magnetic force unless the particle has a velocity... AHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHH :cry:
the answer is zero!
 

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