# Average acceleration = inst accleration ?

 P: 188 Can the average acceleration of a body be not equal to the instantaneous acceleration for at least an instant? I know the answer to the question above is NO. But I find the answer; using Mean value theorem in calculus. Let me know if there is any answer based on physics. Thanks
 P: 403 What is the meaning of ' average' ?
 Sci Advisor HW Helper PF Gold P: 4,132 Let v1=At for a time t1 then v2=Bt+At_1 for an additional time t2. Then a1=A and a2=B. However, the [time-weighted] average acceleration is aavg= (a1t1+a2t2)/(t1+t2)=(At1+Bt2)/(t1+t2).
P: 188
Average acceleration = inst accleration ?

 Quote by robphy Let v1=At for a time t1 then v2=Bt+At_1 for an additional time t2. Then a1=A and a2=B. However, the [time-weighted] average acceleration is aavg= (a1t1+a2t2)/(t1+t2)=(At1+Bt2)/(t1+t2).

Sorry, I don't see any relation between your answer and my question.
I meant in a given time interval is it possible for a body to has average acceleration 'a' but never reach it as instantaneous acceleration.
 Sci Advisor PF Gold P: 2,226 II'm not sure what question your asking, but within in a given inertval there will always be an instant when the acceleration is equal to the avergae accelartion within that inertval as long as there are no discontinuities in the accelartion as a function of time within that interval.

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