Are (0,1) and [0,1] equivalent intervals?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the equivalence of the intervals (0,1) and [0,1], specifically exploring the existence of a bijection between these two sets. The scope includes mathematical reasoning and concepts related to cardinality and set theory.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests considering rationals and irrationals separately to establish a bijection between (0,1) and [0,1].
  • Another participant questions the use of the term "equivalent" in the context of analysis, suggesting it may refer to having the same cardinality.
  • A participant proposes that a bijection can be established by mapping irrationals to themselves and defining a function for rationals.
  • One participant defines a function that maps the rationals in [0,1] to those in (0,1) and includes a specific arrangement of the rationals.
  • Another participant expresses concern about posting the same question in multiple forums and reiterates a similar function for mapping rationals.
  • A later reply thanks the participants for their help and acknowledges the community's support.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the terminology used (e.g., "equivalent" vs. "bijective") and the approach to defining the bijection, indicating that multiple competing views remain without a clear consensus.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations in the definitions and assumptions regarding the terms used, as well as the specific mappings proposed, which may not be universally accepted or understood.

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Show that the intervals (0,1) and [0,1] are equivalent. (Hint: consider rationals and irrationals separately).

I'm able to find a function that shows a bijection between (0,1) an [0,1] under the irrationals, but i can't figure out the rationals. Also... the next step (i believe) would be to find a bijection between these two functions. If anybody can help me figure out an answer to this problem that would be so awesome! Thanks so much, guys!
 
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I've only ever seen "equivalent" used with categories; what does it mean in analysis?
 
I think it just means show there is a bijection from one to the other.
Equivalent isn't particularly standard here. Have the same cardinality, yes, which means lie in the same isomorphism class of sets in the category SET. Also used is equipollent.

Take the obvious bijection from the set {0,1,2...} to {1,2,...}?

Both are in bijection with the rationals inside the interval [0,1]. Can you now see a bijection between [0,1] and (0,1]? (hint map irrationals to themselves identically)
and rinse and repeat.

(I've no idea what 'under the irrationals' means, by the way)
 
Since the set of rationals in (0,1) is countable, they can be ordered:{r1,r2,...}

Define f(x) for x in [0, 1] by: f(0)= r1, f(1)= r2, f(rn)= rn+2 and f(x)= x if x is irrational.
 
It's not a great idea to post the same question in several forums.

This is what I answered in the homework forum:

Fredrik said:
The set of rational numbers is countable. That means that the set of rationals in (0,1) can be arranged in a sequence, like this:

[tex]r_2, r_3, r_4,\dots[/tex]

If you define

[tex]r_0=0[/tex]

and

[tex]r_1=1[/tex]

The function f defined by

[tex]f(r_n)=r_{n+2}[/tex]

maps the rationals in [0,1] bijectively onto the rationals in (0,1).

This is of course the same thing that HallsofIvy suggested, but he also mentioned the obvious extension to the irrationals:

[tex]f(x)=x[/tex]
 
Last edited:
Thank you guys sooo much! I really appreciate the help... and sorry about posting this twice! I figured if I posted in two places that I'd be more likely to get a response! This forum is awesome, my new home away from home!
 

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