Is the derivative of an even function always an odd function?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on whether the derivative of an even function is always an odd function. Participants explore this concept through examples, mathematical reasoning, and counterexamples, focusing on theoretical implications and specific functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that if a function is even, its derivative must be odd, using the example of x^2 and the properties of derivatives of power functions.
  • Another participant provides a formal proof using the definition of even functions and the chain rule, concluding that the derivative satisfies the condition for being odd.
  • Counterexamples are introduced, such as the sine function, which is odd, and its derivative, cosine, which is even, challenging the initial claim.
  • A later reply suggests that the initial proof may hold for functions that can be expressed as power series, indicating a condition under which the claim might be valid.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus; multiple competing views remain regarding the relationship between even functions and their derivatives, with some supporting the claim and others providing counterexamples.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the scope of functions considered (e.g., power functions vs. analytic functions) and the conditions under which the derivative's parity may hold true.

JasonRox
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If a function is even, prove that the derivative is odd.

Look at a graph of x^2 we can clearly see why.

This is how I would approach this...

If we solve d/dx x^n and n is an even integer, we get the derivative nx^(n-1). Since n is even, n-1 is odd.

Because n-1 is odd, the derivative nx^(n-1) becomes odd because f'(-x)= - f'(x). Therefore the derivative of an even function becomes an odd function.

Note: The TA couldn't solve this... :rolleyes:

I excluded the proof of d/dx x^n = nx^(n-1) because it is not necessary because I know how to do that.
 
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Since [tex]f(x)[/tex] is even we have:
[tex]f(x)=f(-x)[/tex]
now, let's take the derivative of both sides. The LHS is easy:
[tex]\frac{d}{dx}f(x)=f'(x)[/tex]
and we can do the RHS using the chain rule:
[tex]\frac{d}{dx}f(-x)=- f'(-x)[/tex]
so, the original equation turns into:
[tex]f'(x)=-f'(-x)[/tex]
multiply both sides by [tex]-1[/tex]
[tex]-f'(x)=f'(-x)[/tex]
which indicates that the function is odd.
 
Not all functions are powers of x!

If f(x)= sin(x), an odd function, its derivative is cos(x), an even function.

NateTG's response is the way to go.
 
Thanks NateTG.
 
Last edited:
HallsofIvy said:
Not all functions are powers of x!

If f(x)= sin(x), an odd function, its derivative is cos(x), an even function.

NateTG's response is the way to go.

Yes but this would be sufficient if the function can be expanded in a power series. sin x = x - x^3/3! + x^5/5! +...

d sinx/dx = 1 - x^2/2! + x^4/4 +... = cos x.

Thus, his proof is correct for all analytic functions.
 

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