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Schrodinger equation for one dimensional square well

 
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Mar20-12, 05:23 PM   #1
 

Schrodinger equation for one dimensional square well


1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
the question as well as the hint is shown in the 3 attachments


2. Relevant equations



3. The attempt at a solution
i know how to normalize an equation, however i do not understand what the hint is saying, or how to do these integrals, any guidance would be greatly appreciated
Attached Thumbnails
a.png   b & c.png   hint.png  
 
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Mar20-12, 05:28 PM   #2
 
The hint is just telling you that each Sin(a pi x) is orthogonal to the other Sins
I'll give you my hint - all you need to know is how to integrate Sin^2(x)

Do you know how to do the other two problems?
 
Mar20-12, 05:41 PM   #3
 
im not sure exactly what you mean by that, what is the integral i need to take?
 
Mar20-12, 05:53 PM   #4
 

Schrodinger equation for one dimensional square well


Well, do you know what it would mean for [itex]\psi(x)[/itex] to be normalized?
 
Mar20-12, 06:05 PM   #5
 
normalizing ψ(x) means to determine if ∫ |Ψ(x)|^2 dx = 1 right?
 
Mar20-12, 06:06 PM   #6
 
Quote by stigg View Post
normalizing ψ(x) means to determine if ∫ |Ψ(x)|^2 dx = 1 right?
That is correct
Do you know what it means if two functions are orthogonal?
 
Mar20-12, 06:07 PM   #7
 
no i do not
 
Mar20-12, 06:10 PM   #8
 
Okay, orthogonality is what the hint is describing
two functions, f and g are orthogonal if [itex]\int f*g\ dx = 0[/itex]
the hint is just restating that each of the Sins are orthogonal to the other ones, that is;
[itex]\int Sin(\pi x)Sin(2 \pi x) dx = 0[/itex] etc

Using this, how do you think you should proceed in determining A?
 
Mar20-12, 06:15 PM   #9
 
do i expand the equation and cancel out the terms with Sin(πx)Sin(2πx) because they will integrate to 0?
 
Mar20-12, 06:16 PM   #10
 
Yes, show me what you get
 
Mar20-12, 06:20 PM   #11
 
does ∫Sin(πx)Sin(3πx)dx=0 and ∫Sin(2πx)Sin(3πx)dx=0 ?
 
Mar20-12, 06:26 PM   #12
 
yes, if you work the integral out yourself you'll find that [itex]\int Sin[n \pi x] Sin[m \pi x] dx = 0[/itex] if [itex]m \ne n[/itex]
 
Mar20-12, 06:33 PM   #13
 
alright so then in that case i will only be dealing with the sin2 functions and therefore |Ψ(x)|^2= (1/10a)sin2([itex]\pi[/itex]x/a)+(aA2/a)sin2(2[itex]\pi[/itex]x/a)+(9/5a))sin2(3[itex]\pi[/itex]x/a)
 
Mar20-12, 06:35 PM   #14
 
|Ψ(x)|^2= (1/10a)sin2(πx/a)+(aA2/a)sin2(2πx/a)+(9/5a))sin2(3πx/a)
That is not exactly true, the terms aren't zero on their own, what IS true is that

[itex]\int |Ψ(x)|^2dx=\int (1/10a)sin2(πx/a)+(aA2/a)sin2(2πx/a)+(9/5a))sin2(3πx/a)dx[/itex]
 
Mar20-12, 06:39 PM   #15
 
yes yes youre right i jumped the gun on that, now will the limits of my integral be from -a to a or from -[itex]\infty[/itex] to[itex]\infty[/itex]
 
Mar20-12, 06:43 PM   #16
 
Quote by stigg View Post
yes yes youre right i jumped the gun on that, now will the limits of my integral be from -a to a or from -[itex]\infty[/itex] to[itex]\infty[/itex]
Since this is the particle in a box problem, the potential outside of the box is set to infinity and so we make ψ = 0 everywhere outside, so it doesn't matter where you set the limits of integration (as long as the box is contained in them of course) since we pick up exactly 0 from the outside region.
If you look at the problem statement, you'll see that the box isn't -a<x<a, it's 0<x<a
 
Mar20-12, 06:56 PM   #17
 
ah yes my mistake so using 0 to a as the limits of integration i get that it is equal to (1/10a)+(9/5a)+(2A2/a)
 
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