Interesting question on functions(domain and range) but can't understnd the answer


by mutineer123
Tags: domain, function, inverse, range
mutineer123
mutineer123 is offline
#1
Apr3-12, 11:27 PM
P: 93
The question is from http://www.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Inte..._w10_qp_13.pdf

question no. 7 (i). I think it should be more than easy for a functions fanatic( or someone who does math regularly for that matter) to get the right answer, but as one can clearly see I can't.
The answer says 0 < f(x) < 4. But I am getting 0 ≤ f(x) ≤ 4. Why are 0 and 4 not inclusive?
Because it clearly says in the question X CAN take up 0 and 6, for which the corresponding Y value should be 0 and 4 respectively.
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tiny-tim
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Apr4-12, 05:42 AM
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hi mutineer123!
Quote Quote by mutineer123 View Post
The answer says 0 < f(x) < 4. But I am getting 0 ≤ f(x) ≤ 4. Why are 0 and 4 not inclusive?
Because it clearly says in the question X CAN take up 0 and 6, for which the corresponding Y value should be 0 and 4 respectively.
your answer looks right to me


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