
#1
Apr312, 11:27 PM

P: 93

The question is from http://www.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Inte..._w10_qp_13.pdf
question no. 7 (i). I think it should be more than easy for a functions fanatic( or someone who does math regularly for that matter) to get the right answer, but as one can clearly see I can't. The answer says 0 < f(x) < 4. But I am getting 0 ≤ f(x) ≤ 4. Why are 0 and 4 not inclusive? Because it clearly says in the question X CAN take up 0 and 6, for which the corresponding Y value should be 0 and 4 respectively. 


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