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Gravity and inertia

 
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Aug5-12, 07:44 AM   #1
 

Gravity and inertia


If force is something that changes the state of a body and inertia is opposition to change of state how can gravitational force be proportional to mass?
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Aug5-12, 08:01 AM   #2
 
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Quote by deechan View Post
If force is something that changes the state of a body and inertia is opposition to change of state how can gravitational force be proportional to mass?
Why can't it?

There's a fault in your logic here. It's as if you're asking "If having money is considered as wealth, then when I go in debt, why do they measure my debt in {insert currency here}?"

Furthermore, why restrict this to just gravitational force? Are you saying that you understand why F=ma is OK for other types of forces?

Zz.
Aug6-12, 09:52 AM   #3
 
Oh!I didn't think of other forces at all.I think I get it now.Thank you.
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