Prove that inv(G) is a group. G is a monoid

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the set of inverses of a monoid, denoted as Inv(G), forms a group. Participants explore the properties of monoids and their inverses, focusing on the necessary conditions for Inv(G) to satisfy group axioms.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant states that Inv(G) is clearly a group because every element in Inv(G) has an inverse, but seeks a formal proof.
  • Another participant notes that if x is in Inv(G), then there exists a y in G such that xy = yx = 1, suggesting that y is also in Inv(G).
  • A third participant references the identity element and presents a series of equations involving elements of G, attempting to demonstrate properties of inverses.
  • Some participants express concern over the clarity and structure of the proof presented, indicating a need for more formalization.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is no consensus on the proof's validity or structure, with participants expressing differing opinions on the clarity and rigor of the arguments presented. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the formal proof of Inv(G) being a group.

Contextual Notes

Participants have not fully resolved the mathematical steps necessary to demonstrate that Inv(G) satisfies the group axioms, and there are indications of missing assumptions or unclear definitions in the proof attempts.

grimster
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G is a monoid. Inv(G) = {a E G, exists b so that a b = b a = 1}

prove that Inv(G) is a group. it's pretty obvious that inv(G) is a group. a monoid is a set with a law of composition which is associative and has a unit element. so inv(G) is clearly a group, because for all a in inv(G) there is an inverse element. but how do i prove this?

i guess i have to show that for each x in inv(G), the inverse of x is also in G. but how do i do that?
 
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Given x in inv(G), you know there is a y in G so that xy=yx=1.
Let's look at y. Guess what? yx=xy=1. But then y is in inv(G) by definition...
1 is in inv(G), * is associative... did I forget something?
 
this is what i have so far. e is the identity element.

there is an element c such that c a = e.
a=ea=cba=cbae=eae=ae
further
cba=ce=c
and
cba=ea=a

have
ab=ba=e
 
Excuse me- what's the problem with my proof?
 
It's not his proof. When doing homework, one should present one's own work, not copy someone else's.
 
Palindrom said:
Excuse me- what's the problem with my proof?

i don't know. it looked kind of "sloppy". :smile: i guess it is ok, but i wanted something a bit more "structured"...
 
I agree with you both- but that's why I gave it in a sloppy way. It's not hard to formalize it, but it's your job... :wink:
 

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