Interchanging diff. and integr. rigorously

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This discussion focuses on the rigorous interchange of differentiation and integration, specifically using the Leibniz integral rule and the fundamental theorem of calculus. The first problem involves differentiating the integral of a product of a Schwarz function and an exponential function, leading to the conclusion that the interchange is valid under certain conditions. The second problem simplifies the scenario to a continuous function over a closed interval, reinforcing the necessity of continuity for the interchange to hold true.

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  • Familiarity with the properties of Schwarz functions
  • Knowledge of the Leibniz integral rule
  • Basic concepts of complex analysis, particularly the use of the imaginary unit i
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LouisR
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I have some problems with what a prof. asked us in class. This is a class of analysis that is dealing with measure theory and stuff like Fourier transform:
I am really stuck with the following ( really have problem to explain the steps rigorously ):

(d/dy){g(x,y)} means differentiates(partially) g with respect to y
i is the usual square root of -1

1-) For this one, x is in R^n, y is in R, f(x) is a Schwarz function ( or if you prefer in the Schwarz class, so as consequence, f is integrable over R^n and it is infinitely differentiable). Could anyone gives me the rigorous steps for this please:

integral( (d/dy){e^(-i*x*y)*f(x) dx} ) = (d/dy){integral(e^(-i*x*y)*f(x) dx)}



2-)Here is a simpler case: Let [a,b] be a close interval in the real. Integration is from a to b. Suppose that f(x,y) and (d/dx){f(x,y)} are continuous on R^2. Then again what are the rigorous justifications for this:

(d/dy){integral(f(x,y)dx)} = integral((d/dy){f(x,y)dx})

A really big thanks in advance if anybody could explain me this.
 
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In order to interchange differentiation and integration rigorously, we must use the fundamental theorem of calculus and the Leibniz integral rule. Let's first consider the first problem:

1-) For this one, x is in R^n, y is in R, f(x) is a Schwarz function (or if you prefer in the Schwarz class, so as consequence, f is integrable over R^n and it is infinitely differentiable). Could anyone gives me the rigorous steps for this please:

To start, let's rewrite the integral using the Leibniz integral rule:
integral( (d/dy){e^(-i*x*y)*f(x) dx} ) = integral( (d/dy){e^(-i*x*y)} * f(x) dx) + integral( e^(-i*x*y) * (d/dy){f(x)} dx)

Now, we can use the fundamental theorem of calculus to evaluate the first integral on the right-hand side:
integral( (d/dy){e^(-i*x*y)} * f(x) dx) = e^(-i*x*y) * f(x) + C

Substituting this back into our original integral, we have:
integral( (d/dy){e^(-i*x*y)*f(x) dx} ) = e^(-i*x*y) * f(x) + C + integral( e^(-i*x*y) * (d/dy){f(x)} dx)

Using the Leibniz integral rule again, we can interchange the differentiation and integration:
integral( e^(-i*x*y) * (d/dy){f(x)} dx) = (d/dy){integral(e^(-i*x*y)*f(x) dx)}

Therefore, we have:
integral( (d/dy){e^(-i*x*y)*f(x) dx} ) = e^(-i*x*y) * f(x) + C + (d/dy){integral(e^(-i*x*y)*f(x) dx)}

Now, since we are dealing with a Schwarz function, we know that it is integrable over R^n and infinitely differentiable. This means that the constant C is equal to 0, and we can rewrite our integral as:
integral( (d/dy){e^(-i*x*y)*f(x) dx} ) = e^(-i*x*y) *
 

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