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i^i = a real number? |
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| May14-05, 03:49 PM | #1 |
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i^i = a real number?
Take euler's formula for the identity of complex numbers:
[latex]e^{xi}=cos(x)+sin(x)i[/latex] If we substitute the value [latex]\pi[/latex] for x it turns out that [latex]e^{i\pi}=-1[/latex] most of us already knew this wonderfull trick. BUT if we substitute [latex]\frac{\pi}{2}[/latex] for x we get (because cos pi/2 = 0 and sin pi/2 = 1): [latex]e^{\frac{\pi}{2}i}=i[/latex] Now if you raise both sides of this identity to the power i, you obtain (since i^2 = -1): [latex]e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}}=i^i[/latex] Calculating the value of [latex]e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}}[/latex] it turns out that [latex]i^i=0,2078795763....[/latex] Isn't that just the weirdest thing ever??
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| May14-05, 03:51 PM | #2 |
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It is a real number.And i wouldn't call anything in mathematics weird.
Daniel. |
| May14-05, 11:35 PM | #3 |
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That's just the principal value. There are an infinite number of values for the expression i^i, all real.
The general form is given by : [tex]i^i = e^{-\frac{1}{2}(2k + 1)\pi}[/tex], where k ranges over all integers. The principal value is for zero k. |
| May15-05, 12:33 PM | #4 |
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i^i = a real number?
are you sure of that formula? try k=1.
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| May15-05, 02:18 PM | #5 |
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![]() I think you mean: [tex]i^i = e^{-\frac{1}{2}(k + 1)\pi}[/tex] since it works for every k*(pi/2) with zero k beeing the principal value if i'm correct |
| May15-05, 02:33 PM | #6 |
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Nope.Compare the case k=0 and k=1,for simplicity.
Daniel. |
| May15-05, 03:05 PM | #7 |
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I see...
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| May16-05, 07:31 AM | #8 |
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Sorry, I was wrong. The general form should be [tex]i^i = e^{-\frac{1}{2}\pi(4k + 1)}[/tex].
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| May16-05, 07:33 AM | #9 |
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Nope,it can't be that one.
Daniel. |
| May16-05, 07:36 AM | #10 |
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k = 0, obvious. k = 1, exp (-5pi/2) = z. z^(-i) = exp(5*i*pi/2) = exp(i*pi/2 + 2*i*pi) = i and so forth. |
| May16-05, 07:47 AM | #11 |
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You said (see above) [tex] i^{i}=e^{-\frac{1}{2}\pi(4k+1)} [/tex] I say [tex] k=0 [/tex] (1) [tex] \mathbb{R}\ni i^{i}=e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}} [/tex] (2) [tex] k=1 [/tex] (3) [tex]\mathbb{R}\ni i^{i}=e^{-\frac{5\pi}{2}}\neq e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}}\substack{(2)\\\displaystyle{=}} i^{i}\in\mathbb{R} [/tex] (4) Do you see something fishy...? You're working with very real numbers...No more multivalued functions...Daniel. |
| May16-05, 07:53 AM | #12 |
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Okay,now here's what u and Max Cohen wanted to write.
[tex]i^{i}=e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}+2ki\pi} \ ,\ k\in\mathbb{Z}[/tex] Daniel. |
| May16-05, 08:48 AM | #13 |
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No, that's not what I wanted to write. I meant that i^i has an infinite number of real, distinct values as given by the general form. The form you wrote trivially gives only a single real value.
My first form was wrong because it generated values for (-i)^i as well. But this form is definitely right. Complex exponentiation is multivalued, and yes, it can even give an infinite number of distinct real results. |
| May16-05, 09:26 AM | #14 |
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Nope.Everything is in terms of real numbers.U use equality sign,and the reals have a funny way of behaving way when in the presence of the equality sign...
[tex] i^{i}=:a\in\mathbb{R} [/tex] You're telling me that [tex] a=e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}}=e^{-\frac{5\pi}{2}}=e^{-\frac{9\pi}{2}}=... [/tex] and that's profoundly incorrect. Daniel. |
| May16-05, 10:23 AM | #15 |
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| May16-05, 10:49 AM | #16 |
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^Exactly.
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