
#1
May3005, 10:46 PM

P: 28

My problem is with finding total angular momentum S of a spin 2 particles. My quantum book doesn't do any examples with spin 2 particles do i just do
J(J+1)j,m> and just plug in j and that will be my value. 



#2
May3105, 03:22 AM

P: 3

Assuming zero orbital angular momentum, L = 0, then the eigenvalue of the total angular momentum squared is just S^2 = s(s+1)*(hbar)^2, with s = 2.
Generally, the treatment of the problem is the same as with spin1/2 particles, so the orbital and spincomponents of angular momentum add together as usual in the case of nonzero orbital angular momentum, ie j goes between abs(l  s) and abs(l+s) in integer steps, then l(l+1)*(hbar)^2 is the eigenvalue of L^2. Cheyne 


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