Can you prove that f(x)=0 for all x in [a,b]?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that a continuous non-negative function \( f \) on the interval \([a,b]\) must be identically zero if the integral of \( f \) over that interval is zero. Participants explore various approaches and reasoning related to properties of continuous functions and integrals.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests starting with the assumption that \( f(x) > 0 \) and attempts to derive a contradiction using the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (FTC).
  • Another participant argues that if \( f \) is non-zero at any point in \([a,b]\), it must be non-zero in some interval around that point, which would contradict the integral being zero.
  • A later reply questions the validity of the assumption that \( F(x) = cx \) follows from \( f(x) > 0 \), emphasizing that continuity implies \( f \) must have a positive minimum in any interval around a point where it is positive.
  • One participant expresses personal interest in the topic, hinting at connections to Cauchy's work in analysis.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the implications of continuity and the behavior of \( f \) in relation to the integral being zero. There is no consensus on the validity of the initial proof attempt or the assumptions made regarding the function's behavior.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight the importance of continuity in the arguments presented, but there are unresolved assumptions regarding the nature of \( f \) and its implications for the integral. The discussion does not reach a definitive conclusion.

steven187
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hello all

well iv been workin on this problem but no matter how many ideas cross my mind i can't prove it, iv tried playing around with the properties of continuous functions on closed intervals but didnt get me anywhere

let f be a contiuous function on [a,b] which is non-negative, suppose that

[tex]\int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx=0[/tex]
show that
[tex]f(x)=0 \ \forall x\epsilon [a,b][/tex]

this is probably the best of my proofs but i don't think its correct because i think i have to prove contradiction for all functions that are more than zero, please help any advice would be helpful

thank you

lets assume that f(x)>0 let f(x)=c>0 by FTC
[tex]\int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx=F(b)-F(a)=0[/tex]
[tex]F(b)=F(a)[/tex]
since f(x)>0 then F(x)=cx where c>=0
ca=cb
0=cb-ca
0=c(b-a) since x is an element of [a,b] for all a,b an element of R then c=0
therefore a contradiction and f(x)=0
 
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if f is non-zero at some point in [a,b] it is non-zero in some interval around that point. and that's sufficient to show the answer.

if f(x)=c then it is a constant function. but you aren't told f(x) is constant, are you?
 
Last edited:
since f(x)>0 then F(x)=cx where c>=0

That certainly doesn't follow!

If, for any x, f(x)> 0 then there exist some small closed interval around that x on which f(x) is positive (since f is continuous). In fact, f must have a minimum on that interval which is positive. The integral of f on that small interval must be a positive number and, since f is non-negative the integral on the entire interval cannot be less than that positive number.
 
HallsofIvy said:
That certainly doesn't follow!

If, for any x, f(x)> 0 then there exist some small closed interval around that x on which f(x) is positive (since f is continuous). In fact, f must have a minimum on that interval which is positive. The integral of f on that small interval must be a positive number and, since f is non-negative the integral on the entire interval cannot be less than that positive number.

Why do I find this stuff so interesting?

I hear whispers of Cauchy in the hallways of Analysis. :smile:
 

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