Solving Limits and Convergence: Doubts and Calculations Explained

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating limits and the convergence of integrals, specifically focusing on the limit as (x,y) approaches (0,0) for the expression \(\frac{x*y}{|x|+|y|}\) and the convergence of the integral \(\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\sin(x)}{\cos(x)+x^2}\).

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the limit of a two-variable function and question the validity of the original poster's reasoning. There is also discussion about the convergence of an improper integral, with some participants suggesting checking the absolute convergence of the integral.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided feedback on the original poster's reasoning, with one questioning the convergence of a related integral. There is an acknowledgment of the original poster's approach, but clarity on certain points is sought.

Contextual Notes

Participants note potential confusion regarding the assumptions made in evaluating limits and integrals, particularly concerning the behavior of functions along specific paths and the conditions for convergence.

pbialos
Hi, Today i had a test, and i was wondering if what i did is correct:

I had to tell if the [tex]:lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow (0,0)} \frac {x*y} {|x|+|y|}[/tex] exists. What i did was to say [tex]lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow (0,0)} \frac {x*y} {|x|+|y|}=lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow (0,0)} \frac {x} {|x|+|y|}*y=0[/tex] because it is bounded multiplied by y that tends to 0.
Is what i did correct?Something tells me it is not because it was too easy.

The second doubt i have is about the convergence of the Integral:
[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac {sin(x)} {cos(x)+x^2}[/tex]
My doubt came since the integrand of the series is not always positive. Can i just calculate the convergence of:
[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}|\frac {sin(x)} {cos(x)+x^2}|[/tex] and if it converges, then the original integral also converges?
I would check the convergence of the second integral dividing it between 0-1 and 1-infinity. The integral on the first interval(between 0 and 1) would converge because the integrand is bounded and continuous for x between 0 and 1, and the integral of the second interval(between 1 and infinity) would also converge by comparison with [tex]\int_{1}^{\infty}\frac {1} {x^2-1}[/tex].

I would really appreciate any help.
Regards, Paul.
 
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I'm rusty on stuff like convergence, but what you did with the second problem seems right. However, are you sure that [itex]\int _1 ^{\infty }\frac{1}{x^2 - 1}\, dx[/itex] converges?
 
Last edited:
AKG said:
On the other hand, approach along y = 0, you get:

[tex]\lim _{(x,0) \to (0,0)} \frac{0x}{|x| + |0|} = \lim _{x \to 0}\frac{0}{|x|} = \infty[/tex]

Since the numerator is zero along that path, the limit will clearly also be zero along that path.

pbialos, I think you have the right idea. It is indeed not difficult, but the phrasing was a bit vague. It's not clear to me what you mean by "because it is bounded multiplied by y that tends to 0."

Try something like:

[tex]\left|\frac {xy} {|x|+|y|}\right|=|y| \frac{|x|}{|x|+|y|} \leq |y|[/tex]
because [itex]|x|/(|x|+|y|) \leq 1[/itex]. Since |y| approaches zero as (x,y) approaches (0,0), the limit is zero.
 
Galileo said:
Since the numerator is zero along that path, the limit will clearly also be zero along that path.
Yeah, I don't know what I was thinking... edited.
 
thank you

Many thanks for your responses. Yes, what Galileo said was my idea, although i expressed my self terribly bad.

Regards, Paul.
 

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