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Why can't physical laws be broken? |
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| Sep9-05, 04:20 PM | #1 |
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Why can't physical laws be broken?
Many people like to say that certain phenomena cannot happen because of the laws of physics. Letting aside the issue of whether some phenomena are really impossible for whatever reason, I'd like to investigate the basis for the notion of immutable, absolute laws. There are three things I don't understand:
1 - What reasons are there to think the universe is ruled by absolute laws? 2 - What reasons are there to think those laws do not leave room for exceptions? 3 - Above all, what reasons do we have to think we know what those rules are? It seems to me the notion of "laws of the universe" is merely a belief. Like all beliefs, it has some supporting evidence, but also like all beliefs, it lacks rational justification. That is how I see it anyway. Any comments? |
| Sep9-05, 04:28 PM | #2 |
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I don't see how one can say that they don't have rational justification. Justification to me is "does this work everytime as far as anyoen can tell". Good enough rational justification for me!
I also think we don't believe there are exceptions because we haven't found any (and when we have in the past, it just turned out to be ignorance and was corrected). |
| Sep9-05, 04:36 PM | #3 |
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Recognitions:
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There is justification, it is just an ad hoc justification. And the sounder the justification gets, the less appealing the notion of absolute laws becomes. Basically, we can say that there are absolute laws, and they are probably like what we think they are. If we ever observe an exception to something we hold to be a law, we realize that it is not that there is an exception to the law, but simply that the actual law is different from what we thought it was. Anything that happens, we can look at and then say that whatever reasons that specific event happened are physical laws, and then we attempt to find those reasons. The reason this loses appeal is that we are saying that there may be a specific law for each and every single unique event. At this piont, it might not even make sense to call them laws, or at least, it wouldn't be interesting. We are only interested in physical laws because they appear to be general.
So we start with the assumption that things happen for a "reason". "Reason" might not be the right word, but hopefully you know what I mean. Why is this a good assumption? Well, denying it would mean that every time the equation F = ma makes a good prediction, it is pure luck. We don't have absolute justification for this assumption, but we have sufficient justification. We then tend to observe that certain reasons are generalizable and can explain a variety of phenomena. We take our observations and try to make generalized laws, then test our laws to see if they really do hold in general. If we find exceptions, we correct our laws. Suppose a certain law appears to break down when the speed is near c. Then we correct our law so that it looks the same when the speed is very low, but alter it so that it changes enough to match the observations when the speed is near c. It's probably safest to say not that we know the rules, but we hypothesize about what the rules may be and continually test our hypotheses in a variety of situations to check that the rules we hold are the general rules governing physical bodies. We can't try every possible situation, so we can't be 100% certain, but no one says we are, and no one needs to be that certain. |
| Sep10-05, 11:11 AM | #4 |
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Why can't physical laws be broken?From another perspective, to claim something cannot happen because the laws of physics prevent it is equivalent to claiming one understands all laws of physics in their entirety, including laws yet to be discovered. That is what I find an extremely irrational claim -- no one is that smart. |
| Sep10-05, 01:15 PM | #5 |
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Recognitions:
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If we propose F = ma because we notice things in our labs work that way, and then we find that when we observe stars millions of miles away, they behave in accordance with the very same equation, then the equation is not just clever wording, it is a good general prediction of physical phenomena. And although our physical laws cannot tell us with absolute certainty whether something will happen or can't happen, it is very reasonable to make predictions based on scientific laws than based on nothing, as though scientific laws give us no better understanding than if there were nothing. Science does not give us certainty, but we do use scientific laws to predict physical phenomena every day. If F = ma were just a clever guess, and weren't really a reliable tool for prediction, then engineers couldn't do all the things they do today safely. The science of electronic circuits allows us to design and build computers. If those laws confered no power to predict on us, then we would be no worse of just randomly soldering chips together. But we don't. We can look at the laws and principles, design on paper a chip whose behaviour and efficiency we can predict, and then proceed to build it. |
| Sep10-05, 02:35 PM | #6 |
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its all about fundamentals...if you have fundamentals then there are certain things that don't exist in the vector spaces in which these fundamentals lie.
its like living in 3D space..you can not explore 4D because you only have 3Ddimesnsions...however if you live in 4D space you can explore 3D space. good old graphics theory. as pertaining to the universe and physics/TOE...we odn't really know whats fundamental...we can only hazard guesses SO that statement should be said "that cannot happen because it violates the CURRENT laws of physics |
| Sep12-05, 10:05 PM | #7 |
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| Sep12-05, 11:16 PM | #8 |
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I think that humans need to fall back on 'absolutes' because we simply can not comprehend our existance if we did not believe such things. However, let me ask you this:
What reason is there to believe the universe is not made of absolute laws? |
| Sep13-05, 08:40 AM | #9 |
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| Sep13-05, 03:24 PM | #10 |
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Two ways: No experiment (out of thousands over a century or more) ever shows the contrary, and using the law to derive other effects has always generated effects that agree with physical measurements. So a physical law, no more than any other physical theory is not "proved" in the sense of logic or mathematics, but is supported by a tremendous, interacting body of evidence that is very tough against attempts to contradict it. As science develops, old laws that had a run of centuries get restricted to a subset of physics, for example "Newton's laws of motion". |
| Sep13-05, 04:02 PM | #11 |
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1. To say "there are no absolutes"--is itself an "absolute" statement, therefore, if you hold "there are no absolutes", in fact you hold that absolutes are possible.
2. As to the question--"how can one "know" that "reality" is "absolutely" incapable of producing some "phenomena"--it is critical that one understand the definitions assumed for the words in "--". I would like to consider the opposite statement: "how can one know that reality is absolutely capable of producing some phenomena" ? 3. To help answer this question, I would like to point out that the Objectivist philosophy of Ayn Rand recognizes two different types of absolutes, "out-of-context absolutes" and "contextual absolute". Out-of-context absolute statements always involve a contradiction in terms, while contextual absolutes represent an immutable truth held within a specified context. According to Rand, those that follow the thinking of Kant mistakenly hold that absolutism is incompatible with a contextual approach to knowledge--such folks define an absolute as being independent from cognition--which then requires that absolutes must derive from revelation. But, for Rand, this is false thinking, absolutes can only derive from the evidence of the senses. As stated by Rand "the metaphysically given is absolute". How can I know that this statement by Rand is absolutely true" ? I would suggest that I "know" this statement to be true the same way know anything to be true, because I know that I "exist" as a metaphysical given, thus I know that "I" am an absolute. In the end, for me, in comes down to the critical importance of "definition", and how such definitions differ from the "concepts" (such as "absolute") they attempt to define. Rand, for example, has no problem with the concept of absolutes because of the way her metaphysics matches logically with her epistomology (e.g., knowledge of absolutes). Of course Rand may not be correct, and either (1) there are no absolutes, or (2) absolutes are derived from revelation. Rand offers the logical third option--absolutes derive from the evidence of the senses, and thus must always be contextual in order to be absolute. |
| Oct13-05, 01:03 AM | #12 |
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In fact there is more than a probability of a "universal law" demonstrating that when you do break one of the universal laws you will experience the consequences of doing so. The consequences are often in the form of another universal law. Thanks! |
| Oct14-05, 02:38 AM | #13 |
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More importantly, a very universal description of a physical law is "balance".
When balance is lost in the universe this creates a temporary state of imbalance, where ever it happens. Then, other physical laws go into action to restore the physical laws of balance. This is my relative view of the physical law of balance. I'm probably wrong about there ever being any imbalance in the universe. There are, perhaps, simply extreme conditions that appear unbalanced which are, in a universal reality, demonstrations of a universe maintaining its balance. What a place! |
| Oct15-05, 08:43 AM | #14 |
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I don't see your problem? MF |
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