merlan
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Let [tex]B_n = (0, \frac {1}{n} ][/tex] for all [tex]n \in N[/tex] (N = set of natural numbers)
a) For each [tex]n \in N[/tex], find [tex]\bigcap _{k=1}^n B_k[/tex] and [tex]\bigcup _{k=1}^n B_k[/tex]
b) Find [tex]\bigcap _{n=1}^ \infty B_n[/tex] and [tex]\bigcup _{n=1}^ \infty B_n[/tex]
For a) I have
[tex] B_1 = (0,1] \\<br /> B_2 = (0, \frac {1}{2} ] \\<br /> B_3 = (0, \frac {1}{3} ][/tex]
so [tex]\bigcap _{k=1}^n B_k[/tex] appears to be [tex]{ \emptyset }[/tex] and [tex]\bigcup _{k=1}^n B_k[/tex] looks like [tex](0,1][/tex]
I'm new to this and any help would be greatly appreciated. The questions I have are is a) correct? and what is the difference between a) and b)?
a) For each [tex]n \in N[/tex], find [tex]\bigcap _{k=1}^n B_k[/tex] and [tex]\bigcup _{k=1}^n B_k[/tex]
b) Find [tex]\bigcap _{n=1}^ \infty B_n[/tex] and [tex]\bigcup _{n=1}^ \infty B_n[/tex]
For a) I have
[tex] B_1 = (0,1] \\<br /> B_2 = (0, \frac {1}{2} ] \\<br /> B_3 = (0, \frac {1}{3} ][/tex]
so [tex]\bigcap _{k=1}^n B_k[/tex] appears to be [tex]{ \emptyset }[/tex] and [tex]\bigcup _{k=1}^n B_k[/tex] looks like [tex](0,1][/tex]
I'm new to this and any help would be greatly appreciated. The questions I have are is a) correct? and what is the difference between a) and b)?