Recent content by _superluminal

I've solved it myself! Here's how: ##\langle \hat{p}\rangle = -i\hbar \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \psi(x) \frac{\partial \psi(x)}{\partial x} \mathrm{d}x## ##\implies \langle \hat{p}\rangle = -i\hbar \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \psi(x) \frac{\mathrm{d} \psi(x)}{\mathrm{d} x} \mathrm{d}x## Because...

As this is a free electron, remember that if we were to take the integral ##\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \mathrm{X}^{*}\mathrm{X} = 1##

Homework Statement Show that a real valued wavefunction ##\psi(x)## must have ##\langle \hat{p}\rangle = 0##: Show that if we modify such a wavefunction by multiplying it by a position dependent phase ##e^{iax}## then ##\langle \hat{p}\rangle = a## Homework Equations ##\hat{p} = -i \hbar...