Recent content by Abdullah Naeem

Thank you for your reply. So the state of the world before measurement is \left\vert \Phi \right\rangle \left\vert \Psi \right\rangle =\alpha _{1}\alpha _{2}\left\vert \phi _{1}\psi _{1}\right\rangle +\alpha _{1}\beta _{2}\left\vert \phi _{2}\psi _{1}\right\rangle +\beta _{1}\alpha...

Suppose there are two independent experiments taking place \left\vert \Phi\right\rangle =\alpha _{1}\left\vert \phi _{1}\right\rangle +\beta_{1}\left\vert \phi _{2}\right\rangle and \left\vert \Psi \right\rangle=\alpha _{2}\left\vert \psi _{1}\right\rangle +\beta _{2}\left\vert...

Misconception alert! Let ##a_n## be such that for each positive integer ##p##, ##\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} a_{n+p} - a_n = 0## Since the modulus operation is a norm on the real numbers, we have equivalence with ##| \; \lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} a_{n+p} - a_n \;| = 0##. Since the modulus...

Actually, yes. This is a convenient way. For instance, see Mathematics of Fuzziness -- Basic Issues by Xuzhu Wang, Da Raun and Etienne E. Kerre.