Okay I think I know what you mean. But what if the 1st gambler lost $5, and gives $10 (2X the bet) to the 2nd gambler to gamble the $10, will it mean 75% Win, 25% Loss? Because 1st Gambler has 50% chance and 2nd gambler has 50% chance
Homework Statement
I am just wondering, this is a problem solving question that I had thought of. If a Gambler was to gamble and the odds were always 50%, and he loses, if he had given his next bet (2X the amount of his previous bet he lost [Martingale] ) to another gambler and the second...
Here we go.
Lets say SUBJECT 1 and SUBJECT 2 have a fight. They both have 990 Points. Each SUBJECT can hit a number from nothing (0) to 112. And they both take turns evenly. Let's say SUBJECT 1 starts to hit a number first and hits 20. Then the Subject 2 would be (990-20)= 970. And they all...