The amount of momentum transfer when accelerating a particle is the same as decelerating it back to zero velocity, but in opposite directions, so there should be no net momentum transfer.
(I hope this post doesn't cross the border into the forbidden realm of quackery and speculation.) I have what seems like a simple question about Special Relativity but I haven’t seen it discussed anywhere, nor has anyone I've asked.
Does the nonlinearity of the Lorentz factor provide a way...