Ok under those conditions(vaccum,no friction losses etc) will it be appopriate to say the power produced by a turbine rotating at constant angular velocity is 0 since torque is 0?
Hey Folks
I have rather a silly doubt i guess...
It goes like this
Consider a disc rotating about a fixed axis with constant angular velocity. Which means it has no angular acceleration ie it must be 0. Now since Torque=(moment of inertia)*(angular acceleration). hence the torque acting on...