I want to show that if f(x) > g(x) \forall x \in (-\infty, \infty) and \displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty}g(x)=\infty , then \displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty}f(x)=\infty . This result is true, correct? If so, what theorem should I use or reference to show this result? I wasn't sure if...