I want to show that if [itex] f(x) > g(x) [/itex] [itex] \forall x \in (-\infty, \infty) [/itex] and [itex] \displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty}g(x)=\infty [/itex], then [itex] \displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty}f(x)=\infty [/itex]. This result is true, correct? If so, what theorem should I use or reference to show this result? I wasn't sure if the squeeze theorem was application to this problem.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Question related to inequalities and limits that go to infinity

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