Recent content by Flamitique

Thank you vela for your help, now I understand ! So yes stevendaryl, now if I take the limit as alpha goes to +inf of the inverse tangent of alpha, C will be equal to pi/2, and the result of the integral is indeed pi/4 ! Thanks for your help!

But if I take the limit as alpha goes to +inf, wouldn't the integral diverges ? Because the limit as alpha goes to +inf of exp(alpha*x) is equal to +inf right ? But if I take the limit as alpha goes to -inf, then exp(alpha*x) will be equal to zero, and the integral would vanish right ?

Yes !

Hey guys ! I just need a little help on a integral I was trying to solve using feyman's technique. This is the integral from 0 to 1 of (sin(ln(x))/ln(x) dx, which has been solved in one of the videos of bprp, but I'm trying to solve it using a different technique, and I end up with a different...