First, let me correct the undergraduate to bachelor degree.
Secondly, are you someone who we called judgmental? Did you know me? Did you see my paper? I asked a simple question, why is there not any experiment for moving observers. And you can't provide a straightforward answer.
I am just curious how did Einstein, an undergraduate patent reviewer, publish his SR paper against Newton 100 years ago. People then appears to have more scientific spirit compared to today.
I got my Ph.D. 20 years ago, published many papers and served as referee for years. You knew what I meant for "take a look". If you like kidding, so be it.
My theory is in harmony with all existing experiments as I knew and provides mathematical explanation of all following experiments. The contradiction is not on any experiment, it just had a different explanation compared to SR.
Sagnac effect; Stellar aberration; Observed Time dilation; Twin...
Thank you everyone replied to my post. Appreciate your feedbacks. This post was moved by the admin so I mistaken it from being deleted and only see it today.
For update, I already spent several months checking the math and can't find any error since it is simple math. So I will move forward...
No. I am not evasive. If there is any doubt about SR, this is the only one. I believe you are very knowledgeable in SR. How about a direct answer? Is there any? If no, what is the reason?
If there is such an experiment, it not only proved the light invariance to the observers. It also proved the equivalence. Then we don't need to have any argument.
I don't know why you are irritated. I am here for a sincere technical discussion.
1. There are many experiments proving the invariance of light speed to source.
2. Is there any experiment proving the invariance of light speed to observer? If not, what is the difficulty?
3. The claim that 1 is...
That is exactly my point. It is a postulate. Is there any experimental proof? There are many experiments for the invariance to source motion. But I didn't see any to observer motion. I used the example only to show that we should not take equivalence for grant.
Yes. You are right. Doppler effect doesn't prove there is no equivalence. My question is any experimental proof of the equivalence? Doppler effect is an example that we should not take it for granted.