Recent content by HansH

not sure what you exactly mean by isotropic and why this is important what i found: 'Isotropic refers to materials, substances, or physical properties that are uniform, identical, or consistent in all directions. ' but I only measure in 1 direction so i dont understand why you say that time...

this equation attached. d is the distance the light travels for example 1km. v is the speed of the moving clock to the other position. so that takes a time d/v during that time a difference in time builds up between both clocks . th fist clock goes on with a factor 1 and the other clocj goes on...

The synchronisation is done when both clocks are together and I know exactly howe much the go out of sync due to the traveling. for example at c=100000km/s and clocks are 1 km apart when the second clock travel to that position at 10m/s the amount of out of sync is 5.107e-13 s while light takes...

no I don't think so because i only calculate the time dilation in the direction that the light travels from source clock to destination clock and I measure the the time it takes to go from 1 clock to the other because I use the syncpulses of both clocks to synchronize (as i know how much out of...

so you rely on the calculated out of sync beteeen the 2 clocks and therefor you can rely on the measurement on the receiver side.

no, see my calculation. according to SRt you can calculate time dilation as function of both v and c. this time dilation during the traveling distance for the clock to arrive at the measuring position you have exact values of the amount of out of sync beteen the 2 clocks as function of a valid c...

so why would you like to use an Einstein convention if you are already able to calculate exactly howe much out of sync occurs due the the well known SRT time dilation formula?

I would apreciate if you analyze my reasoning instead of concluding it is wrong based on synchronization conventions. my reasoning is simple that you can directly calculate how much the moving clock falls behind as function of the valid speed of light. So i know that both clocks still give same...

no i don't think so. you can calculate a measured time as function of any lightspeed that could occur. the time is the sum of the distance traveled by the light during that time and taking ito account the amount of out of sync between the 2 clocks as function of that same unknown lightspeed. so...

Idea to measure 1 way lightspeed is to use 2 synchronized clocks and take into account the time dilation caused by moving the clock to the measuring position. Suppose the speed of light in 1 direction is c1 and in the opposite direction it is c2. I take 2 clocks that generate pulses. Both...

Thanks, then my understanding is still correct so far. But I got a bit confused by some posts so wanted to be sure. So to be really sure: If a gyroscope orbits a planet that is not rotating or if the gyroscope moves along a non rotating star is then the conclusion that once aligned to a very far...

I am not sure if I can interpret what you say. you say: The spin axis will shift so as not to point towards the distant "fixed" star. so does it then drift away during 1 orbit? are you then referring to the frame dragging effect giving a very tiny drift? But the original question was if you...

not sure if everybody understands the question and setup (we had some discussion about that on a Dutch forum) so here perhaps a better description plus picture. I consider a thought experiment in which a rapidly spinning gyroscope is forced to follow the trajectory of a laser beam. The...

sending a laserbeam from say 10 light minutes distance from the sun across the edge of the sun and then to 10 light minutes distance to the opposite site of the sun gives a change in direction of the laserbeam of approx 1.7 arc seconds. But now imagine the situation where I take an ideal...