Recent content by hwangii

Hi all, I have a simple question as follows: f is a function from X to Y where X=[0,1]; and Y is finite, i.e. \vert Y\vert <\infty then is f Borel measurable? Thank you for your help in advance.

Suppose there are two urns: in urn A, there are r red balls and w white balls. In urn B, there are b black balls. Suppose we do the following experiment: draw k balls from urn A. Among those k balls, put only the red balls in urn B, and draw n balls from urn B. Then the number of red balls...