# Measurability of a function with finite codomain

Hi all,
I have a simple question as follows:
$f$ is a function from $X$ to $Y$ where
$X=[0,1]$; and
$Y$ is finite, i.e. $\vert Y\vert <\infty$
then is $f$ Borel measurable?

lavinia
Gold Member
Hi all,
I have a simple question as follows:
$f$ is a function from $X$ to $Y$ where
$X=[0,1]$; and
$Y$ is finite, i.e. $\vert Y\vert <\infty$
then is $f$ Borel measurable?