I think I have got the derivation of f = ma
According to Newton's second law we know that mv-mu/t is proportional to force applied.
so we can write that m(v-u)/t = f
but (v-u)/t = a
We can write that ma = f i.e f = ma
If i am wrong can anyone correct me.Please!
I can do that.
See, if a force of f1 acts on a body of mass m then the body starts accelerating and when the mass of the body is increased then the force of f1 is not enough to accelerate the body.
So we can say that force is proportional to mass.
Then if a force of f1 is acted on the same...