Recent content by Nana113

If wave functions are individually normalized does it mean that they are also normalized if phi 1 and phi 2 are integrated over infinity?

so my working out of the question attached is correct?

so this condition always applies and the integral always equates to 0 when asking for orthogonality?

For 2 complex functions, to find the orthogonality, one of the function has to be in complex conjugate? Because in the lecture note, the first formula is without complex conjugate, so I’m a bit confused