Recent content by neutrino33

This is what I'm working on. It is from Halzen Martin.

I buy that. I don't see, however, what happens to the j^\mu.

I know I may be in the wrong place, but I think I'll get a quicker and better response here. My question is: How do \nabla \cdot \textbf{B} = 0 and \nabla \times \textbf{E} + \frac{\partial \textbf{B}}{\partial t} = 0 derive from \Box^2 A^\mu -\partial^\mu(\partial_\nu A^\nu) = j^\mu?