Recent content by phatgandy

The_Duck & PAllen, I obtained the division by simple rearrangement of x−ct=Y(x′−ct′), which is totally reasonable. Either way, my point was the statement reads 0 = Y*0 or by rearrangement 0/0 = Y Stevendaryl, thank you for your great reply. It has helped in many ways, as additionally have...

Appendix 1 - simple Lorentz transformation derivation found at - http://www.bartleby.com/173/a1.html Given in equation (3) (x'-ct') = Y(x-ct) [Y = const.] by rearrangement, it yields, (x'-ct')/(x-ct) = Y. But it is stated that both (x-ct) and (x'-ct') are zero, so...