Recent content by Probert

Also just to add, Assume R2 to be a roller. You can also assume the pin at R1 to have zero moment. Therefore through summation of moments at point R1, the reaction at R2y would be WL/2, which through summation of forces would make R1y = WL/2 as well. However, this just doesn't seem right to me...

Homework Statement I have a beam on an incline at angle θ. It is uniformly loaded with "W", which represents the self-weight of the beam. Reactions occur at each end. The beam is simply supported. The scenario is drawn out below: The Attempt at a Solution This problem seems so...