Recent content by TeraHammer

Thanks, well spotted, but I was regarding physical systems, i.e. h(t<0)=0 Does it hold here?

Im struggling to find proof for this suspicion I have; Given is a function f(t) and a normalised function h(t), and their convolution; f(t) * h(t) = g(t) Is it true that \int fdt = \int gdt ?